stotch9021 stotch9021
  • 02-04-2020
  • History
contestada

1.Why were most Europeans in the Middle Ages unable to
read or write?

Respuesta :

daryionmct daryionmct
  • 02-04-2020

Answer:

Only Very High Class men were educated.

Explanation:

Answer Link
k798 k798
  • 02-04-2020
that means Europe doesn’t have a very high “literacy rate” idk if that helped but it’s true :) sorry ,,
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

What is 3 - 1.5? Please also explain!
What is the total number of grams of NaI(s) needed to make 1.0 liter of a 0.010 M solution? (1) 0.015 (3) 1.5 (2) 0.15 (4) 15
What is the formula for ANOVA
Given the balanced equation: 2C + 3H2==> C2H6 What is the total number of moles of C that must completely react to produce 2.0 moles of C2H6? (1) 1.0 mol (3)
what landforms make up most of the Balkan Peninsula
The congress passes laws but the president can veto them what else can they do besides veto them
Raul calculated that he would spend $125 on school supplies this year but he accually spent 87.50 on school supplies what is his percent of error
How is a franchise “an almost independent” business?
Which subatomic particle has a negative charge? (1) proton (3) neutron (2) electron (4) positron
why did the government give land grants to railroad companies